• plyth@feddit.org
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    1 day ago

    Germany was founded in 1949, Israel in 1948.The allies could have though.

    • Saleh@feddit.org
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      22 hours ago

      The federal republic is the legal successor to the third reich, which was technically still the Weimar republic, which in turn is the legal successor of the German reich founded in 1871.

      The laws of the federal repbulic largely build on the laws of the German reich and even kept quite a few of the laws made by the Nazis, such as the laws around abortion. Courts today sometimes rule about upholding or revoking rulings in the Weimar republic.

      The German “us” transcends the states. My Great grandmother, born in 1907 lived through 5 variations of Germany, when we seperate Weimar and the third reich.

      • plyth@feddit.org
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        22 hours ago

        My argument is not about the transition of responsibility but the legal limit that Germany was occupied. No German could have made the decision of seceding land between 1945 and 1948.

        As a side note, in 1907 Germany must have been more like Britain or the EU. Has there been a German “us”?

        • Saleh@feddit.org
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          21 hours ago

          For the period of occupation that is true, although i’d say that by committing the Holocaust Germany contributed significantly to the idea that a Jewish nation state would be needed for the safety of Jewish people.

          In regards to German identity, it is complicated to the point of absurdity. I think the fragileness and relative recentness of a German national identity is playing a big role in overcompensation through extreme nationalism.