By all means, humiliate yourself by splitting that hair
I’ll take that as an admission that you’re wrong then, given you can’t defend your wrong interpretation of it (which you would know is wrong if you had read more than 1 paragraph of the book!) 😂
That’s convention for notation, not a distinction between a*b and ab both being the product of a and b.
You have to slap 1/ in front of things and pretend that’s the subject, to avoid these textbooks telling you, ab means a*b. They are the same thing. They are one term.
says person who only read 2 sentences out of the book, the book which proves the statement wrong 😂
a*b and ab both being the product of a and b
Nope, only ab is the product, and you would already know that if you had read more than 2 sentences 😂
You have to slap 1/ in front of things and pretend that’s the subject
“identically equal”, which you claimed it means, means it will give the same answer regardless of what’s put in front of it. You claimed it was identical, I proved it wasn’t.
avoid these textbooks telling you
It kills you actually, but you didn’t read any of the parts which prove you are wrong 🙄just cherry pick a couple of sentences out of a whole chapter about order of operations 🙄
They are the same thing. They are one term
Nope! If they were both 1 term then they would give the same answer 🙄
1/ab=1/(axb)=1/(2x3)=1/6
1/axb=1/2x3=3/2=1.5
Welcome to why axb is not listed as a Term on Page 37, which if you had read all the pages up until that point, you would understand why it’s not 1 Term 🙄
‘If a+b equals b+a, why is 1/a+b different from 1/b+a?’
Because they’re not identically equal 🙄 Welcome to you almost getting the point
ab means a*b
means, isn’t equal
That’s why 1/ab=1/(a*b)
Nope, it’s because ab==(axb) <== note the brackets duuuhhh!!! 😂
But we could just as easily say 1/ab = (1/a)*b
No you can’t! 😂
because that distinction is only convention
Nope! An actual rule, as found not only in Maths textbooks (see above), but in all textbooks - Physics, Engineering, Chemistry, etc. - they all obey ab==(axb)
None of which excuses your horseshit belief that a(b)2
Yes we could, because it’s a theoretical different notation. Mathematics itself does not break down, if you have to put add explicit brackets to 1/(ab).
Mathematics does break down when you insist a(b)2 gets an a2 term, for certain values of b. It’s why you’ve had to invent exceptions to your made-up bullshit, and pretend 2(8)2 gets different answers when simplified from 2(5+3)2 versus 2(8*1)2.
In other words against the rules of Maths that we have, got it
does not break down, if you have to put add explicit brackets to 1/(ab)
But it does breakdown if you treat ab as axb 🙄
if you have to put add explicit brackets to 1/(ab)
We explicitly don’t have to, because brackets not being needed around a single Term is another explicit rule of Maths, 🙄 being the way everything was written before we started using Brackets in Maths. We wrote things like aa/bb without brackets for many centuries. i.e. they were added on after we had already defined all these other rules centuries before
Mathematics does break down when you insist a(b)2 gets an a2 term
No it doesn’t. If you meant ab², then you would just write ab². If you’ve written a(b)², then you mean (axb)²
for certain values of b
Got nothing to do with the values of b
It’s why you’ve had to invent exceptions to your made-up bullshit
There’s no pretending, It’s there in the textbooks
when simplified from 2(5+3)2 versus 2(8*1)2
You know it’s called The Distributive Property of Multiplication over additon, right? And that there’s no such thing as The Distributive Property of Multiplication over Multiplication, right? You’re just rehashing your old rubbish now
I’ll take that as an admission that you’re wrong then, given you can’t defend your wrong interpretation of it (which you would know is wrong if you had read more than 1 paragraph of the book!) 😂
This is you admitting there’s no difference. You insist they’re not the same. How?
Not difficult, I already did in another post. If a=2 and b=3…
1/ab=1/(axb)=1/(2x3)=1/6
1/axb=1/2x3=3/2=1.5
That’s convention for notation, not a distinction between a*b and ab both being the product of a and b.
You have to slap 1/ in front of things and pretend that’s the subject, to avoid these textbooks telling you, ab means a*b. They are the same thing. They are one term.
Nope, still rules
says person who only read 2 sentences out of the book, the book which proves the statement wrong 😂
Nope, only ab is the product, and you would already know that if you had read more than 2 sentences 😂
“identically equal”, which you claimed it means, means it will give the same answer regardless of what’s put in front of it. You claimed it was identical, I proved it wasn’t.
It kills you actually, but you didn’t read any of the parts which prove you are wrong 🙄just cherry pick a couple of sentences out of a whole chapter about order of operations 🙄
Nope! If they were both 1 term then they would give the same answer 🙄
1/ab=1/(axb)=1/(2x3)=1/6
1/axb=1/2x3=3/2=1.5
Welcome to why axb is not listed as a Term on Page 37, which if you had read all the pages up until that point, you would understand why it’s not 1 Term 🙄
‘If a+b equals b+a, why is 1/a+b different from 1/b+a?’
ab means a*b.
That’s why 1/ab=1/(a*b).
But we could just as easily say 1/ab = (1/a)*b, because that distinction is only convention.
None of which excuses your horseshit belief that a(b)2 occasionally means (ab)2.
Because they’re not identically equal 🙄 Welcome to you almost getting the point
means, isn’t equal
Nope, it’s because ab==(axb) <== note the brackets duuuhhh!!! 😂
No you can’t! 😂
Nope! An actual rule, as found not only in Maths textbooks (see above), but in all textbooks - Physics, Engineering, Chemistry, etc. - they all obey ab==(axb)
says person still ignoring all these textbooks
Yes we could, because it’s a theoretical different notation. Mathematics itself does not break down, if you have to put add explicit brackets to 1/(ab).
Mathematics does break down when you insist a(b)2 gets an a2 term, for certain values of b. It’s why you’ve had to invent exceptions to your made-up bullshit, and pretend 2(8)2 gets different answers when simplified from 2(5+3)2 versus 2(8*1)2.
No you can’t! 😂
In other words against the rules of Maths that we have, got it
But it does breakdown if you treat ab as axb 🙄
We explicitly don’t have to, because brackets not being needed around a single Term is another explicit rule of Maths, 🙄 being the way everything was written before we started using Brackets in Maths. We wrote things like aa/bb without brackets for many centuries. i.e. they were added on after we had already defined all these other rules centuries before
No it doesn’t. If you meant ab², then you would just write ab². If you’ve written a(b)², then you mean (axb)²
Got nothing to do with the values of b
says person still ignoring all these textbooks
There’s no pretending, It’s there in the textbooks
You know it’s called The Distributive Property of Multiplication over additon, right? And that there’s no such thing as The Distributive Property of Multiplication over Multiplication, right? You’re just rehashing your old rubbish now